50 FTS Check Flight Smart Book Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• If radio contact is not established prior to 9 DME during Breakout to Radar, what should you do?
• Min Maneuvering airspeed and configuration rule: what is the default assumption for maneuvering configuration unless specified?
• Under Weather Solo, what is the maximum cloud thickness allowed?
• What does the Red X symbol indicate?
• What is the normal fuel pressure delivered by the boost pumps?
• When is the stall warning horn activated with the gear up?
• Which cockpit controls the brakes?
• For form takeoff, TOR must be less than what percent of TORA?
• When should an ILS approach be discontinued?
• How much ice on inlet duct lips can cause engine damage?
• What is the maximum holding speed for United States Navy-only fields?
• Which value is associated with Max Range AOA?
• What is the HUD field of view width?
• During AB operation, when can nozzle position be less than 50%?
• During the instrument cockpit check, the EHSI deviation from the mag compass should be within which tolerance?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the solo balance concept?
• What is the maximum holding speed for the altitude band up to 6,000'?
• How do you recover from Idle Decay?
• Refusal Speed Definition and Assumptions: what is Refusal Speed Definition?
• When is the stall warning horn activated with the gear down?
• How does crossfeed operate in a two-engine fuel system?
• Which item is NOT a 3-Phase AC Equipment component?
• What may occur due to insufficient fuel pressure during crossfeed?
• Which statement correctly matches rudder travel limits to nose gear extension?
• What is the cabin pressurization schedule?
• Which item is listed under Left AC Bus?
• What is the controlled ejection altitude?
• Fuel quantity warning loss occurs if which condition happens?
• What is the thrust loss when anti-ice is used in MAX configuration?
• What does the static inverter operate?
• What do bus contactors do?
• Which bus powers the EED?
• Cuban Eight: what is the backward distance required?
• Local training flights over land are not permitted when steady state surface winds in training or operating areas exceed how many knots?
• Is an alternate required?
• Using the crosswind quick math circle method, what fraction of wind does a 30-degree crosswind represent?
• Which engine mounted accessory helps prevent overspeed?
• Which combination of inputs is required for engine starts?
• What effect does the SAS have on yaw oscillations?
• In addition to eliminating pitch changes, what effect does the flap slab have on the horizontal tail when flaps move?
• Training Rules: G-Ex
• What will cause a false XMFR RECT OUT light to illuminate?
• Which mnemonic indicates that a procedure turn is not authorized?
• When is the anti-ice valve always open?
• What four aerodynamic speeds are equal to L/D Max speed?
• When does the minimum stick force per G occur?
• Which of the following lists the weather and speeds required for low-level operations?
• What flight parameters should you avoid MAX power?
• Which item is listed under Left Essential DC Bus?
• What is the WSSP normal capacity?
• What Angle of Attack corresponds to stall?
• Rudder trim allows how many degrees of rudder travel?
• Aircrew may file to land at US civil public airports when:
• What system must be on before the rudder will trim?
• What happens to gear indications with a DC power failure?
• Boost pump output reduction percentage occurs when fuel is under 650 lbs?
• Which bus controls the trim?
• What is the minimum altitude for Other Air Work?
• Barometric aiding may reduce the number of satellites required for RAIM/FDE by how much?
• Under the Min Maneuvering rule, what is the specified minimum speed?
• Which is the maximum time for the nozzles to reach 50-85 percent when rapid throttle movements are used in flight?
• Altitude used for computing reserve (fuel)
• How long does an alternate gear extension take?
• What happens when you move the throttle to idle during start?
• Which bus are flap motors on?
• How do you use AUX flaps?
• When are in-flight engine shutdowns allowed?
• Landing Distance for 100% Flaps is equal to which expression?
• With less than 1700 lbs of fuel, in crab configuration, what is the maximum landing VVI?
• Which throttle action increases stall susceptibility at high altitude?
• Which of the following is a main fuel control function?
• Which of the following items is part of the form takeoff requirements?
• At what altitude have flameouts occurred with gravity flow, indicating its limits?
• In Dual operations, which statement about pattern operations is true?
• How is AB fuel flow metered?
• What is the speed of fuel shutoff valve actuation when commanded?
• How long does pressing the start button activate the static inverter?
• For a Loop maneuver, what is the target load factor or Gs range?
• Regarding AB fuel flow, does AB value display occur on the fuel flow gauge, and how much does AB increase fuel flow?
• In EGT droop, what condition describes the high air flow rate?
• The 1-hour limit between 10,000' and 12,500' applies under which conditions?
• How many DC busses can the TRUs power?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement?
• By what factor does a wet runway increase landing distance?
• Which of the following is a type of IFR departure acronym listed?
• What is the primary purpose of the battery's connection to the DC busses?
• During Idle Decay, which caution lights illuminate?
• Exceptional Release (ER) is always required prior to flight.
• Gear is powered by which hydraulic system?
• SE Go 100% flaps rule: By what altitude is Boldface required?
• What outbound leg length is published for holds above 14,000 feet?
• Between 12,500' and 14,000', what is the maximum duration allowed without supplemental oxygen?
• What happens when a DC instrument loses power?
• How long and to what accuracy will the standby attitude indicator last without power?
• During the start of the right engine, which generator goes out at 43-48% RPM?
• According to the IFR filing guidance, what is the stated instruction?
• What is the emergency fuel value?
• For the instrument cockpit check, the ILS flight director should default to what state?
• Which time value matches the maximum seat adjustment during the eight-minute window?
• What is the oil system capacity?
• Normal Recovery Fuel is defined as established locally or 800 lbs (1000 lbs solo), whichever is greater. Which option expresses this correctly?
• Bug speeds are based on flap angle derived from which source rather than the flap position indicator?
• At what altitude does ambient pressure apply in the cabin pressurization schedule?
• Which method can be used when a procedure turn is not authorized?
• Which parameter is used to estimate hydroplaning risk?
• Cloverleaf: what is the distance for other turns?
• The last 50% of thrust is achieved during which portion of RPM?
• Which item is listed as an engine mounted accessory?
• The generator cut-in range is expressed in which units?
• Decision Speed Definition and Assumptions.
• What is the base speed used to determine Final Turn Speed?
• Which category is associated with circling radius in the material?
• Which engine model is specified for the T-38 as a J85-GE-5R/S, 8-stage, axial-flow turbojet?
• Under Weather Solo Criteria, what is the required visibility above and below the clouds?
• In the Loop maneuver, what indicated airspeed is targeted?
• Which statement is true about the emergency O2 bottle pressure?
• Landing Distance is defined as the length of runway required to stop the aircraft based on full flaps.
• Should you taxi with a canopy malfunction?
• An equipment failure in the rear cockpit does what to solo flight restrictions?
• Which of the following speeds is NOT one of the speeds equal to L/D Max?
• Which busses can the battery power?
• Under the single-engine landing distance expression, what is added to 2500 for the 60% flaps condition?
• Which component is part of the 3 Phase AC Equipment?
• At what pressure does the hydraulic pressure light turn on?
• G tones for negative Gs occur at what fraction of positive G warnings?
• How can the igniters be energized for more than 30 seconds?
• When do you hear a max G tone?
• How many AB pilot spray bars are there?
• Under what condition do the fuel quantity bars turn red?
• The 1-hour maximum between 10,000' and 12,500' applies under which conditions?
• The minimum SETOS speed is equal to the takeoff speed with how many engines?
• Liveoak Airspace extends from the surface to 3500' MSL within a specified distance of the extended centerlines of runway 31R/13L. What is that distance in DME, and what area is excluded past the departure end?
• If airspeed increases by 5%, by how much will landing distance increase?
• Emergency frequencies
• What do you do if a generator fails?
• Which of the following describes a benefit of a swept wing design?
• Under which condition do TRUs power all three DC busses via diode module?
• Under what condition can a rapid imbalance occur when using crossfeed?
• Left engine fuel cells supply is which pair?
• Which component enables TRUs to supply all three DC busses when AC power is available?
• Under normal conditions, approximately how many seconds does it take to extend the landing gear?
• How often is a tire pressure check due?
• With gear down and an AOA of 0.75, will the stall warning horn sound?
• What is the crosswind limit for touch-and-go operations?
• Which instrument provides the angle of attack information?
• When should you use the MOR handle?
• What are the weather requirements for radar vectors?
• With full fuel, what is the maximum landing vertical speed (VVI)?
• Is an audible gear warning activated by an unlocked gear door?
• How long does normal gear extension take?
• Which option best describes the role of AB pilot spray bars?
• Which electrical bus powers the AOA system?
• SE Go 60% flaps rule: By what altitude is Boldface required?
• Which statement correctly describes when ICAO loading should be delayed?
• Under which condition should ILS be used if planned departure or arrival is in IMC and ILS/LOC is the only compatible approach?
• Under Crosswind Landing Procedures, how should the aircraft land?
• Which light goes out when right air is connected?
• Normal max continuous thrust occurs at what RPM for this engine (non-afterburning)?
• Time Inspections are due at the end of the flight on which the time is exceeded and can overfly by 10% maximum.
• Which lights go out when the right engine starts?
• When does most of the flap slab compensation occur?
• What is the voltage of the AC generators?
• What is the dry crosswind limit?
• Which G limit applies to the asymmetric configuration of WSSP?
• Which component must be powered for rudder trim to function?
• Which term appears at the top of the engine mounted accessories list?
• Requirements to takeoff
• What is the position tolerance for flaps?
• What Angle of Attack corresponds to maximum performance?
• What is the sea level static thrust for MIL and MAX conditions of the engine?
• How many fuel systems are there?
• Which statement about canopy safety is true?
• SID stands for in this material?
• Thru-Flight Inspection (TH) is accomplished:
• When do you hear a medium G tone?
• Using the circle method, what fraction corresponds to a 45-degree crosswind?
• When does the battery power the DC busses?
• What are the IFR recovery procedures?
• During an EED overtemperature event, how long is the EED HOT indicator displayed?
• Wake turbulence spacing behind large aircraft or helicopter?
• What speed is L/D Max?
• For the instrument cockpit check, the ILS CDI should indicate which side of the course?
• What might happen if pitot heat remains on for longer than 30 seconds on the ground?
• How many AC generators are there?
• What is the normal hydraulic pressure range?
• What is the pressure range of the emergency O2 bottle?
• What bus is the flap indicator on?
• Where is there an increased susceptibility to stall/flameout?
• Does pressing the start button reset the 30-second timer?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a pneumatic system component?
• Which light is powered by the right AC to monitor fuel pressure on the left side?
• What are the outputs of APUs?
• Which statement best describes the allowance 'Can overfly by 10% maximum' associated with Time Inspections?
• Which statement about boost pumps during crossfeeding is true?
• Which document version is cited for IFR filing guidance?
• What will pressing the warning horn silence button do?
• What is the wet crosswind limit, including solo limit?
• What do TRUs do?
• What does the slash '/' symbol indicate?
• In Immelmann, what is the altitude change target?
• Which bus powers the speed brake?
• Where does the air from anti-ice go?
• How long should you wait before shutting down after turning off the EGI?
• What is the maximum operating airspeed?
• In a Restricted Overhead Breakout, to what altitude should you climb and what heading?
• What is the recommended remedy for a 60-190 lb fuel imbalance displayed on EED?
• Describe T2 Cutback.
• Under Liveoak controls, is pattern entry from the gate allowed?
• Under which conditions does the gear not-down warning system activate?
• How long will the emergency O2 bottle last?
• Under the 202-V3 guidelines, oxygen must be used anytime cabin pressure exceeds 10,000 feet (Above FL240 in T-38).
• Which statement is true about stall warning with gear down?
• Critical Engine Failure Speed Definition is defined as the speed at which the aircraft accelerates with one engine inoperative and permits either acceleration to SETOS and takeoff (700' from start of rotation) or stop in the same distance.
• With less than 1700 lbs of fuel, what is the maximum landing vertical speed (VVI)?
• In crab configuration with full fuel, what is the maximum landing VVI?
• What are bug speeds based on?
• Not recommended to crossfeed in which scenario?
• What capability related to power flow between buses is controlled by the protection panel?
• What are the G limits for WSSP?
• Under the Aero/AHC training rules, what are the required weather/visual conditions?
• What is the WSSP maximum load capacity in pounds?
• Which AOA light is inop with gear and flaps up?
• Why do the last 2000' of runways have less directional control when wet?
• What is the additional distance added for 60% flaps, 1k' flare, and gas?
• When is it impermissible to use flaps?
• Lazy Eight parameters: which option reflects the correct KCAS, RPM, altitude, and spacing?
• Which light goes out when left air is connected?
• When is a rise in EGT normal when using anti-ice?
• Can the generators be turned off?
• During the instrument cockpit check, what reading should the VVI show?
• What does the dash '-' indicate?
• Nose gear extended less than 3/4 allows how many degrees of rudder travel?
• Which maneuver's parameters specify 18-20 NL?
• Which statement best summarizes Idle Decay risk conditions?
• Do not descend below localizer minimums if you are more than how many dots below the glideslope or above it?
• Nose High Recoveries require which weather and airspace conditions?
• What is the difference in MIL to MAX for thrust and fuel flow?
• Which light indicates a fuel pressure issue during crossfeed?
• During start, which igniters are fired when the throttle is moved to idle?
• Basic Postflight Inspection (BPO) is accomplished:
• What is the item immediately after 'Weather conditions' in the sequence?
• Which statement is true about Ram Dump with respect to engine anti-ice?
• What is the maximum time allowed for seat adjustment during any 8-minute period?
• Under Restricted Overhead procedures, what is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in the RSU pattern?
• At what fuel should you not crossfeed with both boost pumps operating?
• In determining minimum altitude above congested areas, you must be at least 1000' above the highest obstacle within a radius of how many feet?
• For Simulated EP training rules, which of the following conditions applies?
• What is the CAT E circling radius in nautical miles?
• What happens when an AC instrument loses power?
• Final Approach Speed (60/100 flaps) is what, including gas, with a minimum?
• Which description best matches how fuel flow is shut off?
• Cloverleaf: what is the forward distance required?
• What do the TRUs power?
• What indication occurs when the EED experiences an overtemperature condition?
• The measurement unit used for thunderstorm penetration speed is which of the following?
• What powers each boost pump?
• What is the maximum amount of fuel?
• Which statement is true regarding balance limits?
• T2 Bias effect on engine performance is best described as?
• Takeoff Speed Definition: what defines Takeoff Speed?
• Which maneuver is to be performed at 4-8K above?
• When may wake turbulence separation be decreased?
• SETOS is defined as the speed at which the aircraft is able to climb, once clear of ground effect with gear down and flaps 60%, at 100 fpm.
• Which condition could cause a false XMFR RECT OUT light to illuminate?
• What is the generator shift range?
• Which position should the FCP speed brake be placed?
• How does a fuel imbalance of 60-190 lbs display on EED?
• Idle Decay occurs during 1 G stalls at or above FL200 with throttles at idle and airspeed less than 200 KCAS. What happens to RPM?
• G Warmup parameters: which of the following correctly states the G Warmup parameters?
• Which navigation system is listed under Right Essential DC Bus?
• Landing Distance for 60% Flaps is given as which expression?
• Which statement correctly states the takeoff RCR requirement?
• According to altitude limitations without oxygen, remain below what altitude?
• Which combination of items is explicitly listed as part of the instrument cockpit check?
• Describe T2 Bias.
• Which altitude range uses 200 KIAS as the maximum holding speed?
• Under what condition will the EED power up in Max Day brightness?
• What causes an XFMR RECT OUT light?
• How many satellites are required for RAIM?
• Which component connects or disconnects the gens to the buses based on signals?
• A red display on the EED indicates which range of fuel imbalance, and what is the recommended remedy?
• What does moving the throttles to MAX do when no start button is pressed?
• What squawk code should be used until receiving IFR clearance during Restricted Overhead Breakout?
• Which list correctly represents the components of the AB system?
• During an instrument cockpit check, TACAN/VOR distance from a known checkpoint must be at least which value?
• What systems are required for SAS to work?
• At what fuel should you not taxi?
• Which of the following is a listed type of Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)?
• At what EGT does the EED notify the MDP?
• Which component is part of the Variable Geometry System controlled by the main fuel control?
• Right engine fuel cells supply is which pair?
• How many fuel flow sensors are there and how can they be checked without power?
• When is the gear voice message activated?
• When is gravity flow sufficient for normal engine operation?
• When is the fuel quantity warning system lost?
• The TOD for the instrument cockpit check should reflect which time reference?
• What does OFF mean on the EED?
• What item precedes 'Airways' in the sequence?
• What does FAIL mean on the EED?
• What is the maximum time allowed between 12,500' and 14,000' according to the guidelines?
• What is the final item in the sequence?
• Which hydraulic system powers the speed brake?
• Which of the following is a correct rating for the TRU output?
• Which term is included as part of the DOODMSS acronym?
• What does the flap slab do?
• What is the exception to BILLL?
• Preflight Inspection (PR) is performed:
• In the SETOS definition, the climb speed is with gear down and flaps at what percent?
• What happens when either AOA indexer fails?
• What is the temperature range for the TAT probe?
• What power does the pneumatic system run on?
• What is the solo fuel balance limitation?
• Rotation Speed Definition: what is the Rotation Speed?
• Which statement about CFL relative to ASDA is true for takeoff?
• Which statement about engine anti-ice effectiveness is correct?
• G Awareness parameters: which option lists the correct G Awareness values?
• What is the minimum final approach speed with no flaps including a gas allowance?
• Under AB operation, when may the nozzle position indicate less than 50%?
• What are the volts and amps of the battery?
• What is the maximum oil consumption rate?
• During the instrument cockpit check, the altimeter error from known altitude should be within which tolerance?
• Barrel Roll parameters: which option lists the correct KCAS, RPM, and altitude?
• In Immelmann, what is the backward/forward distance requirement?
• Under the training rules, is practice no-flap pattern/landing allowed above 2500?
• Which property of the flight controls prevents back-driving under load?
• How do the throttles shut off fuel flow?
• What is the maximum holding speed for a United States Air Force field?
• Which bus powers the speed brake?
• What do the boost pumps do?
• Requirements to begin an approach
• Which statement best describes the flight controls' power/irreversibility?
• What are the weather requirements for a Visual Approach?
• Can you practice min roll landings?
• During the instrument cockpit check, how should the pitot heat operate?
• When established on course, what CDI deflection indicates establishment on a VOR/TACAN?
• Which value represents the WSSP abrupt maneuvering max speed?
• For 60% Flaps, what is the alternative landing distance when a 1,000 ft flare is assumed?
• What is the maximum holding speed for 14,001' and above?
• What does the SAS do?
• What is the cabin pressurization segment from 8k' to FL230?
• Final Approach Speed (No Flap) is what, including gas, with a minimum?
• Insufficient aerobraking increases landing distance by what percentage?
• Which maneuver uses 350-400 KCAS and 95% RPM?
• Which crosswind condition has the smallest stated limit?
• What is defined as the minimum continuous level flight speed?
• How many pounds of fuel for single point refueling?
• Which sequence leads to SAS chatter as described?
• How quickly should nozzles reach 50-85 percent after AB light on takeoff?
• Pattern Solo restrictions include which of the following statements?
• When are Crosswind Landing Procedures in effect?
• During the cockpit check, what is the stated INS accuracy?
• How many satellites are required for FDE?
• On a VOR/TACAN, established on course is indicated by what CDI deflection?
• The protection panel protects busses from a bad generator and the generator from a bad bus, and also controls what capability?
• How can you tell brakes are near the end of their service life?
• What is the recommended method to minimize blade failures?
• Which arrangement yields the artificial feel produced by the flight controls?
• When the gear warning light and tone turn off during acceleration, at what speed does this occur?
• When will a rectifier failure PFL be produced?
• The published outbound leg for holds is based on which reference?
• What is the standard holding pattern in terms of turns?
• What is the generator cut-in range?
• T2 Cutback purpose is to prevent what conditions?
• The Right Autosyn is associated with which system?
• Describe EGT droop. In which condition may EGT be lower than expected?
• During an instrument cockpit check, TACAN/VOR full-scale deflection is limited to what?
• Autosyn Instruments is labeled as which term in the data?
• Which fuel cells supply the left engine?
• Which term is listed as a factor under instrument operations?
• When can the SAS cause chatter of rudder pedals?
• Which EGT range triggers a continuous MDP notification for 60 seconds?
• Which item is used to indicate flight at night in the list?
• How long does it take to retract the landing and taxi lights?
• Which set of lights turn on when the battery is turned on for a battery start?
• DTNT elements: which statement is true about the DTNT acronym? (Which option lists all four elements precisely?)
• What is the minimum altitude for operations over congested areas?
• Which statement about solo fuel balance is true?
• How are flap motors redundant?
• Which item is listed under Right AC Bus?
• Under which conditions does the hydraulic light illuminate?
• Which WCI lights turn on when the battery is turned on for a battery start?
• Which altitude range uses 230 KIAS as the maximum holding speed?
• The gear lever is controlled by which electric bus?
• Other Air Work training rules specify altitude above what?
• What is the cabin pressurization schedule above FL230?
• What are the output volts and amps of the TRUs?
• When does the gear (not down) warning system activate?
• What is the minimum KCAS for low-level operations?
• Which altitude range uses 265 KIAS as the maximum holding speed?
• What are the three types of flap slab failures?
• For stall warning with gear up, altitude must be below what height AGL?
• Which statement correctly contrasts controlled and uncontrolled ejection altitudes?
• During Breakout to Radar, what altitude and heading should you climb to?
• Describe the AC phase power.
• When should ICAO loading be delayed?
• Lead the pull up: how should you lead the pull up?
• What is the maximum allowed duration for 0 or negative G flight at 10,000 ft before the limit is exceeded when using MAX power?
• What is the minimum altitude above non-congested areas?
• When must a G-Ex be accomplished?
• What does FANGS stand for in the Utility hydraulics system?
• What determines if the engine driven pumps are providing adequate pressure?
• When is NWS deactivated?
• Where is the crossfeed valve physically located?
• What bus is the flap lever on?
• Minimum SETOS is defined as the speed corresponding to which engine configuration?
• Which of the following is the nominal AC generator voltage with tolerance?
• During the instrument cockpit check, the EHSI deviation from known heading should be within which tolerance?
• The Left Autosyn Instruments are associated with which components?
• For the instrument cockpit check, how many satellites should be available?
• During an instrument cockpit check, TACAN/VOR CDI displacement tolerance is which of the following?
• Which fuel cells supply the right engine?
• Which statement best describes the Rolling Takeoffs training rules regarding time of day and runway adjustment?
• Which light goes out when the left throttle goes to idle?
• Which is the correct order of aircraft priorities as listed?
• Which statement about the FCP and RCP speed brake positions is true?
• Idle Decay threshold: idle Decay occurs when airspeed is below what KCAS?
• At what pressure does the hydraulic pressure light turn off?
• What is the WSSP abrupt maneuvering max speed?
• AB fuel flow at rest, sea level?
• How many AB spray bars are there?
• Which navigation aids are listed as a combined item in the minimum equipment?
• Which statement about AUX flaps is true?
• What is the landing distance formula without flaps?
• Are boost pumps necessary for engine operation?
• Which item is not a listed type of IFR departure?
• Is it normal to get a FUEL PRESS light when using AB?
• Which training maneuver requires a 180-degree turn as part of its parameters?
• How many pounds of fuel are in the right system?
• For an ILS/LOC/RNAV approach, established on course is indicated by which CDI deflection?
• Where does the pneumatic system obtain bleed air?
• Which item is on the Battery Bus?
• Which cockpit(s) have control of boost pumps?
• What prevents runaway trim?
• To energize igniters for more than 30 seconds, which action should you take?
• What is the Turbulence/Speed brake max speed for WSSP?
• What is the thrust loss when anti-ice is used in MIL configuration?
• How do you eliminate duct howl?
• Which systems are powered by the Utility hydraulic system?
• When will FLAPS indicate on the HUD/MFD?
• Which fuel value is designated as Emergency Fuel?
• Which lighting is listed as minimum equipment?
• For over-wing refueling starting with the left system, how many pounds of fuel are involved?
• Within any eight-minute interval, what is the maximum total seat adjustment allowed?
• What does GPS approaches only clause indicate?
• Using the crosswind circle method, what fraction corresponds to a 15-degree crosswind?
• With FUEL LOW light, what pitch should you maintain?
• Which bus powers fuel shutoff switches and how long does it take?
• Refusal Speed Assumptions: what is the specified reaction time before throttles are pulled to idle?
• During the start of the left engine, which light goes out at 43-48% RPM?
• What condition can increase stall susceptibility above FL350?
• Boost pump output is reduced under what fuel condition?
• Hydroplaning is possible at what speed relative to tire pressure?
• Cloverleaf: what is the distance for the first turn?
• When is extended daylight defined?
• In the Simulated EP rules, which statement describes the conditions?
• During crossfeeding, when may the FUEL PRESS light illuminate momentarily?
• How do the TRUs provide one output to the busses?
• When will a TRU PFL be generated?
• Nose gear extended more than 3/4 allows how many degrees of rudder travel?
• There are how many bladder fuel cells in the system?
• What happens if crossfeeding is left on until the active system runs dry?
• Which electric bus controls the gear lever?
• What is the crosswind limit for icy or standing water conditions?
• Which term describes the distance required for landing with a single engine?
• During taxiing in icy, snow, or at night, what spacing is required?
• The canopy should not be opened if the relative wind exceeds how many KCAS?
• Which PFL is generated when the AOA indexer fails?
• Which component provides electrical power for engine-mounted accessories?
• Which maneuver specifies 8-10 NL?
• Using AUX flaps, what is the effect of selecting 100%?
• Cat D minimums require which of the following set of conditions?
• What is the frequency range of the AC power from the generators?
• Which item is NOT on the Non-Essential DC Bus?
• What is the uncontrolled ejection altitude?
• What is AB fuel flow at Mach 1, sea level?
• Which statement correctly pairs the satellite requirements for RAIM and FDE?
• Which bus powers the fuel quantity indicators?
• When using the canopy breaker tool, which orientation is correct?
• How many self-adjuster mechanisms do the wheel brakes have?
• What are the components of the AB system?
• Which system uses utility hydraulic pressure to reduce yaw oscillations?
• In Weather Solo, what does the '5' represent in 5000/5?
• AB Fuel Control Senses: DTNT stands for which set of sensors?
• Weather required to file
• What does the protection panel do?
• The L/D Max speed is approximately which value?
• Fuel reserve requirements
• At what speeds may pulsing the stick cause an overshoot of the G limit?
• Which term refers to air navigation routes in the list?
• What produces the flight control's artificial feel?
• Which light(s) turn on when the right start button is pushed?
• When can speed brake creep occur?
• Which device can be used to check the seven fuel flow sensors without applying power?
• When can you not practice SE full stop with 60% flaps?
• Hydroplaning is possible at approximately what speed?
• What is the minimum altitude above water or sparsely populated areas?
• What is the maximum holding speed for the altitude band from 6,001' to 14,000'?
• Which statement is true about the AOA values provided for maneuver performance?
• Does the alternate qualify?
• How many pounds of fuel are in the left system?
• How does a fuel imbalance of 0-50 lbs display on EED?
• Critical Field Length Definition: what is Critical Field Length?
• What is the thunderstorm penetration speed?
• When using the canopy breaker tool, which orientation is correct?
• Which rule requires subtracting from the runway for TOLD during takeoffs?
• How can the static inverter be activated?
• For the instrument cockpit check, ICAO date should be which of the following?
• What outbound leg length is published for holds at 14,000 feet or below?
• Which speed category corresponds to 350 KCAS?
• What speed is the lock point configured with 60% flaps?
• What Angle of Attack corresponds to maximum endurance?
• Which statement about Pattern Solo is true?
• When crossfeeding, how do both engines receive fuel?
• Which statement about the boost pumps’ electrical power source is correct?
• Which of the following is a requirement for takeoff?
• What is the item listed directly after 'Instrument approach' in the sequence?
• When do you hear a high G tone?
• How many cylinders do the wheel brakes have?
• In a single-engine scenario with about 250 pounds of fuel, how should you configure the boost pump and crossfeed?
• Which light goes out when the left engine starts?
• Which canopy rating statement is correct?
• If crosswinds exceed 15 kts and there is no suitable barrier, what is the minimum runway length required?
• When will the fuel low light come on?
• Which item is described as backup controls for UHF, Nav, and TACAN?
• Which rule requires daylight as a condition for takeoff procedures?
• When can you not pull closed/low closed?
• What bus powers NWS?
• Which hydraulic system powers the wheel brakes?
• How does a fuel imbalance of 200+ lbs display on EED?
• How long will an 80% charged battery last?
• At what fuel pressure does the FUEL PRESS light come on?
• Under Liveoak controls, pattern entry is allowed from which sources?
• Training Rules: Stalls/Slow Flight
• What should you do with the engines when starting below -30F?
• What does the AB fuel control modulate?
• Cuban Eight: what is the forward distance required?
• What must be on for an APU start?
• What is the WSSP max speed?
• The flap motors are powered from which electrical bus?
• Which instrument is provided as primary and standby for attitude information?
• During the instrument cockpit check, what attitude should the standby attitude indicator display?
• Which description best matches the engine described as an 8-stage axial-flow turbojet?
• In the decision speed scenario, what happens after the 3-second reaction period?
• Which bus powers the AOA system?
• Which components receive only static air information from Pitot-Static?
• When will the SAS disengage?
• Dated Inspections are due:
• What is the airspeed condition for gear voice message activation?
• Where are the left and right boost pumps located?
• Pattern Solo requires which of the following statements to be true?
• Which statement is true about WSSP speeds?
• Which item is powered by the Battery Bus?
• How many bladder fuel cells are there?
• Which statement about fuel balance and CG in this system is correct?
• During an instrument cockpit check, the TACAN/VOR TO/FROM swap must be set to what?
• When is engine anti-ice effective?
• Which ejection altitude is higher?
• DIRT in main fuel control senses stands for which parameters?
• Cavitation concerns arise when the fuel quantity drops below which condition?
• What can you not do on practice overheads/circles?
• The Right Autosyn is associated with which component?
• Pitot-Static data that includes both dynamic and static air information is received by which components?
• Max Range AOA value?
• What is the maximum relative wind speed, in KCAS, with the canopy open?
• Which bus powers crossfeeding and where is the valve located?
• Which item is listed under Right Essential DC Bus?
• What phrase would you normally use to indicate you are breaking out to radar?
• What happens to the nose gear indication when DC power fails?
• The TAT probe temperature range is correctly stated as which option?
• When should you not do a MAX thrust dive?
• Which of the following is the correct enumeration for the initial distance in the single-engine landing distance expression?
• Final Turn Speed is equal to what?
• The Right AC Bus is associated with which label?
• How do you avoid Idle Decay?
• How many AC generators?
• When will the relay connect the battery?
• Minimum time interval between full stop landings with the gear retracted in flight?
• At what altitude and airspeed does a reduction in directional stability occur with the WSSP?
• What is not permitted when crosswinds exceed 15 knots and there is no suitable barrier?
• At what voltage will the relay disconnect the battery?
• Which statement is true about Pitot-Static data distribution?
• Minimum time interval between full stop landings with the gear extended in flight?