50 FTS Check Flight Smart Book Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the maximum holding speed for the altitude band from 6,001' to 14,000'?
• What happens to gear indications with a DC power failure?
• What Angle of Attack corresponds to maximum endurance?
• Under which condition should ILS be used if planned departure or arrival is in IMC and ILS/LOC is the only compatible approach?
• When is engine anti-ice effective?
• Can the generators be turned off?
• What does FAIL mean on the EED?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement?
• Which method can be used when a procedure turn is not authorized?
• Which component enables TRUs to supply all three DC busses when AC power is available?
• Which item is not a listed type of IFR departure?
• What do TRUs do?
• Hydroplaning is possible at approximately what speed?
• Which bus controls the trim?
• Which PFL is generated when the AOA indexer fails?
• Under the training rules, is practice no-flap pattern/landing allowed above 2500?
• Which statement best describes the Rolling Takeoffs training rules regarding time of day and runway adjustment?
• What is the maximum time allowed for seat adjustment during any 8-minute period?
• Which bus powers the AOA system?
• Which sequence leads to SAS chatter as described?
• What is the maximum oil consumption rate?
• What is the wet crosswind limit, including solo limit?
• Which of the following is a correct rating for the TRU output?
• Which statement correctly pairs the satellite requirements for RAIM and FDE?
• What is the additional distance added for 60% flaps, 1k' flare, and gas?
• Which instrument is provided as primary and standby for attitude information?
• If radio contact is not established prior to 9 DME during Breakout to Radar, what should you do?
• What effect does the SAS have on yaw oscillations?
• What bus powers NWS?
• Which electric bus controls the gear lever?
• Autosyn Instruments is labeled as which term in the data?
• What does the slash '/' symbol indicate?
• Which component connects or disconnects the gens to the buses based on signals?
• Which throttle action increases stall susceptibility at high altitude?
• What does the AB fuel control modulate?
• The TAT probe temperature range is correctly stated as which option?
• Training Rules: Stalls/Slow Flight
• At what altitude does ambient pressure apply in the cabin pressurization schedule?
• Which statement is true about the AOA values provided for maneuver performance?
• Which maneuver specifies 8-10 NL?
• During Idle Decay, which caution lights illuminate?
• When is extended daylight defined?
• What is the emergency fuel value?
• What happens when a DC instrument loses power?
• The Left Autosyn Instruments are associated with which components?
• What determines if the engine driven pumps are providing adequate pressure?
• Which bus are flap motors on?
• Which of the following is a main fuel control function?
• What are the three types of flap slab failures?
• What bus is the flap indicator on?
• Under Liveoak controls, pattern entry is allowed from which sources?
• Which components receive only static air information from Pitot-Static?
• What is the WSSP max speed?
• What is the maximum holding speed for United States Navy-only fields?
• DIRT in main fuel control senses stands for which parameters?
• How many bladder fuel cells are there?
• Rotation Speed Definition: what is the Rotation Speed?
• During the instrument cockpit check, the EHSI deviation from known heading should be within which tolerance?
• When will FLAPS indicate on the HUD/MFD?
• When will the relay connect the battery?
• What is the crosswind limit for icy or standing water conditions?
• The 1-hour maximum between 10,000' and 12,500' applies under which conditions?
• What happens if crossfeeding is left on until the active system runs dry?
• What does the Red X symbol indicate?
• What does the dash '-' indicate?
• Fuel quantity warning loss occurs if which condition happens?
• Takeoff Speed Definition: what defines Takeoff Speed?
• Which speed category corresponds to 350 KCAS?
• Under Weather Solo Criteria, what is the required visibility above and below the clouds?
• How is AB fuel flow metered?
• How do the throttles shut off fuel flow?
• What is the Turbulence/Speed brake max speed for WSSP?
• How long will an 80% charged battery last?
• What does the protection panel do?
• What is the minimum altitude for operations over congested areas?
• Where does the pneumatic system obtain bleed air?
• Which term describes the distance required for landing with a single engine?
• Which statement correctly states the takeoff RCR requirement?
• Cloverleaf: what is the distance for the first turn?
• In addition to eliminating pitch changes, what effect does the flap slab have on the horizontal tail when flaps move?
• Are boost pumps necessary for engine operation?
• What should you do with the engines when starting below -30F?
• The TOD for the instrument cockpit check should reflect which time reference?
• Is it normal to get a FUEL PRESS light when using AB?
• How many AC generators?
• What do bus contactors do?
• When should you use the MOR handle?
• Should you taxi with a canopy malfunction?
• Nose High Recoveries require which weather and airspace conditions?
• Which statement is true about Pitot-Static data distribution?
• Basic Postflight Inspection (BPO) is accomplished:
• How many pounds of fuel are in the left system?
• Which property of the flight controls prevents back-driving under load?
• The flap motors are powered from which electrical bus?
• Pitot-Static data that includes both dynamic and static air information is received by which components?
• Which fuel cells supply the left engine?
• When is the stall warning horn activated with the gear up?
• How quickly should nozzles reach 50-85 percent after AB light on takeoff?
• Altitude used for computing reserve (fuel)
• Minimum time interval between full stop landings with the gear retracted in flight?
• During start, which igniters are fired when the throttle is moved to idle?
• For an ILS/LOC/RNAV approach, established on course is indicated by which CDI deflection?
• Using the crosswind circle method, what fraction corresponds to a 15-degree crosswind?
• Which item is listed as an engine mounted accessory?
• Which position should the FCP speed brake be placed?
• Describe EGT droop. In which condition may EGT be lower than expected?
• Which rule requires daylight as a condition for takeoff procedures?
• With less than 1700 lbs of fuel, in crab configuration, what is the maximum landing VVI?
• When can the SAS cause chatter of rudder pedals?
• How many cylinders do the wheel brakes have?
• What must be on for an APU start?
• What prevents runaway trim?
• Which statement about canopy safety is true?
• Which WCI lights turn on when the battery is turned on for a battery start?
• With less than 1700 lbs of fuel, what is the maximum landing vertical speed (VVI)?
• With FUEL LOW light, what pitch should you maintain?
• At what altitude and airspeed does a reduction in directional stability occur with the WSSP?
• Which maneuver uses 350-400 KCAS and 95% RPM?
• Which altitude range uses 230 KIAS as the maximum holding speed?
• What item precedes 'Airways' in the sequence?
• What is the item immediately after 'Weather conditions' in the sequence?
• When can speed brake creep occur?
• When is the stall warning horn activated with the gear down?
• What is the thrust loss when anti-ice is used in MIL configuration?
• For form takeoff, TOR must be less than what percent of TORA?
• The Right AC Bus is associated with which label?
• What is the cabin pressurization schedule above FL230?
• Insufficient aerobraking increases landing distance by what percentage?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a pneumatic system component?
• Which hydraulic system powers the speed brake?
• Preflight Inspection (PR) is performed:
• How long and to what accuracy will the standby attitude indicator last without power?
• What Angle of Attack corresponds to maximum performance?
• What outbound leg length is published for holds above 14,000 feet?
• Which component provides electrical power for engine-mounted accessories?
• Cloverleaf: what is the distance for other turns?
• When does most of the flap slab compensation occur?
• What is the airspeed condition for gear voice message activation?
• What are the G limits for WSSP?
• Emergency frequencies
• Under the Min Maneuvering rule, what is the specified minimum speed?
• How often is a tire pressure check due?
• Which of the following is the correct enumeration for the initial distance in the single-engine landing distance expression?
• What are bug speeds based on?
• Which condition could cause a false XMFR RECT OUT light to illuminate?
• Final Turn Speed is equal to what?
• Critical Field Length Definition: what is Critical Field Length?
• Which statement correctly contrasts controlled and uncontrolled ejection altitudes?
• Minimum time interval between full stop landings with the gear extended in flight?
• Which statement about fuel balance and CG in this system is correct?
• Where is the crossfeed valve physically located?
• In determining minimum altitude above congested areas, you must be at least 1000' above the highest obstacle within a radius of how many feet?
• What are the output volts and amps of the TRUs?
• Is an alternate required?
• How many AB spray bars are there?
• In a Restricted Overhead Breakout, to what altitude should you climb and what heading?
• When can you not pull closed/low closed?
• What is the landing distance formula without flaps?
• Which statement best describes the allowance 'Can overfly by 10% maximum' associated with Time Inspections?
• Which light indicates a fuel pressure issue during crossfeed?
• What power does the pneumatic system run on?
• Using the circle method, what fraction corresponds to a 45-degree crosswind?
• Final Approach Speed (60/100 flaps) is what, including gas, with a minimum?
• How are flap motors redundant?
• What do you do if a generator fails?
• When does the battery power the DC busses?
• What is the standard holding pattern in terms of turns?
• In Immelmann, what is the altitude change target?
• How many AC generators are there?
• What is the minimum KCAS for low-level operations?
• During the instrument cockpit check, the altimeter error from known altitude should be within which tolerance?
• What is the voltage of the AC generators?
• SETOS is defined as the speed at which the aircraft is able to climb, once clear of ground effect with gear down and flaps 60%, at 100 fpm.
• What is the WSSP normal capacity?
• Which bus powers the speed brake?
• Within any eight-minute interval, what is the maximum total seat adjustment allowed?
• Which light goes out when right air is connected?
• What is the controlled ejection altitude?
• What is the recommended method to minimize blade failures?
• Which description best matches the engine described as an 8-stage axial-flow turbojet?
• Which AOA light is inop with gear and flaps up?
• Which option best describes the role of AB pilot spray bars?
• Which item is described as backup controls for UHF, Nav, and TACAN?
• Cuban Eight: what is the backward distance required?
• Is an audible gear warning activated by an unlocked gear door?
• At what speeds may pulsing the stick cause an overshoot of the G limit?
• Which term appears at the top of the engine mounted accessories list?
• What is the solo fuel balance limitation?
• During the start of the left engine, which light goes out at 43-48% RPM?
• In EGT droop, what condition describes the high air flow rate?
• What happens when an AC instrument loses power?
• Cloverleaf: what is the forward distance required?
• What causes an XFMR RECT OUT light?
• In Dual operations, which statement about pattern operations is true?
• Pattern Solo restrictions include which of the following statements?
• What is the maximum time allowed between 12,500' and 14,000' according to the guidelines?
• Which component is part of the 3 Phase AC Equipment?
• What is the final item in the sequence?
• Refusal Speed Definition and Assumptions: what is Refusal Speed Definition?
• What is the minimum final approach speed with no flaps including a gas allowance?
• Liveoak Airspace extends from the surface to 3500' MSL within a specified distance of the extended centerlines of runway 31R/13L. What is that distance in DME, and what area is excluded past the departure end?
• During an instrument cockpit check, TACAN/VOR full-scale deflection is limited to what?
• By what factor does a wet runway increase landing distance?
• The generator cut-in range is expressed in which units?
• At what pressure does the hydraulic pressure light turn on?
• Which light goes out when the left throttle goes to idle?
• Which statement correctly matches rudder travel limits to nose gear extension?
• Barrel Roll parameters: which option lists the correct KCAS, RPM, and altitude?
• When are in-flight engine shutdowns allowed?
• Under which conditions does the hydraulic light illuminate?
• When can you not practice SE full stop with 60% flaps?
• At what pressure does the hydraulic pressure light turn off?
• Under normal conditions, approximately how many seconds does it take to extend the landing gear?
• When must a G-Ex be accomplished?
• In Weather Solo, what does the '5' represent in 5000/5?
• For the instrument cockpit check, how many satellites should be available?
• How do you recover from Idle Decay?
• Which of the following is a requirement for takeoff?
• Which item is listed under Right AC Bus?
• At what EGT does the EED notify the MDP?
• What are the weather requirements for radar vectors?
• What does the flap slab do?
• In a single-engine scenario with about 250 pounds of fuel, how should you configure the boost pump and crossfeed?
• Gear is powered by which hydraulic system?
• What is the pressure range of the emergency O2 bottle?
• What is the normal fuel pressure delivered by the boost pumps?
• When are Crosswind Landing Procedures in effect?
• The minimum SETOS speed is equal to the takeoff speed with how many engines?
• When should an ILS approach be discontinued?
• For 60% Flaps, what is the alternative landing distance when a 1,000 ft flare is assumed?
• Which rule requires subtracting from the runway for TOLD during takeoffs?
• Which of the following lists the weather and speeds required for low-level operations?
• Which of the following describes a benefit of a swept wing design?
• Why do the last 2000' of runways have less directional control when wet?
• Which statement about AUX flaps is true?
• In the decision speed scenario, what happens after the 3-second reaction period?
• When should you not do a MAX thrust dive?
• Idle Decay threshold: idle Decay occurs when airspeed is below what KCAS?
• At what fuel pressure does the FUEL PRESS light come on?
• What does moving the throttles to MAX do when no start button is pressed?
• During the instrument cockpit check, what attitude should the standby attitude indicator display?
• Which navigation aids are listed as a combined item in the minimum equipment?
• Which time value matches the maximum seat adjustment during the eight-minute window?
• Local training flights over land are not permitted when steady state surface winds in training or operating areas exceed how many knots?
• Dated Inspections are due:
• What four aerodynamic speeds are equal to L/D Max speed?
• At what fuel should you not taxi?
• In the Simulated EP rules, which statement describes the conditions?
• Which statement correctly describes when ICAO loading should be delayed?
• Which statement is true about the emergency O2 bottle pressure?
• How long does it take to retract the landing and taxi lights?
• When may wake turbulence separation be decreased?
• What powers each boost pump?
• There are how many bladder fuel cells in the system?
• When using the canopy breaker tool, which orientation is correct?
• How do you avoid Idle Decay?
• Which statement about engine anti-ice effectiveness is correct?
• Nose gear extended less than 3/4 allows how many degrees of rudder travel?
• Critical Engine Failure Speed Definition is defined as the speed at which the aircraft accelerates with one engine inoperative and permits either acceleration to SETOS and takeoff (700' from start of rotation) or stop in the same distance.
• Which list correctly represents the components of the AB system?
• Cat D minimums require which of the following set of conditions?
• How many satellites are required for RAIM?
• Which of the following is the nominal AC generator voltage with tolerance?
• For the instrument cockpit check, the ILS CDI should indicate which side of the course?
• When using the canopy breaker tool, which orientation is correct?
• Which is the correct order of aircraft priorities as listed?
• Which navigation system is listed under Right Essential DC Bus?
• What is the maximum relative wind speed, in KCAS, with the canopy open?
• An equipment failure in the rear cockpit does what to solo flight restrictions?
• Under the 202-V3 guidelines, oxygen must be used anytime cabin pressure exceeds 10,000 feet (Above FL240 in T-38).
• Which of the following items is part of the form takeoff requirements?
• What is the maximum operating airspeed?
• Which statement best describes the flight controls' power/irreversibility?
• Normal max continuous thrust occurs at what RPM for this engine (non-afterburning)?
• Which term is listed as a factor under instrument operations?
• During Breakout to Radar, what altitude and heading should you climb to?
• Under Liveoak controls, is pattern entry from the gate allowed?
• The 1-hour limit between 10,000' and 12,500' applies under which conditions?
• When crossfeeding, how do both engines receive fuel?
• For the instrument cockpit check, ICAO date should be which of the following?
• What does FANGS stand for in the Utility hydraulics system?
• What happens to the nose gear indication when DC power fails?
• What is the minimum altitude above non-congested areas?
• Boost pump output is reduced under what fuel condition?
• During the instrument cockpit check, what reading should the VVI show?
• Which value is associated with Max Range AOA?
• Which description best matches how fuel flow is shut off?
• Which statement about CFL relative to ASDA is true for takeoff?
• What is AB fuel flow at Mach 1, sea level?
• What bus is the flap lever on?
• Landing Distance is defined as the length of runway required to stop the aircraft based on full flaps.
• If airspeed increases by 5%, by how much will landing distance increase?
• Which training maneuver requires a 180-degree turn as part of its parameters?
• What happens when either AOA indexer fails?
• What are the components of the AB system?
• T2 Bias effect on engine performance is best described as?
• Requirements to takeoff
• What system must be on before the rudder will trim?
• Which cockpit controls the brakes?
• What are the IFR recovery procedures?
• When is NWS deactivated?
• When established on course, what CDI deflection indicates establishment on a VOR/TACAN?
• What is the maximum allowed duration for 0 or negative G flight at 10,000 ft before the limit is exceeded when using MAX power?
• How much ice on inlet duct lips can cause engine damage?
• The measurement unit used for thunderstorm penetration speed is which of the following?
• Which lighting is listed as minimum equipment?
• Which bus powers the fuel quantity indicators?
• Under Crosswind Landing Procedures, how should the aircraft land?
• What is the item listed directly after 'Instrument approach' in the sequence?
• Which crosswind condition has the smallest stated limit?
• What is the sea level static thrust for MIL and MAX conditions of the engine?
• When will a TRU PFL be generated?
• How many DC busses can the TRUs power?
• Which light is powered by the right AC to monitor fuel pressure on the left side?
• What is the thunderstorm penetration speed?
• How do you use AUX flaps?
• What outbound leg length is published for holds at 14,000 feet or below?
• With full fuel, what is the maximum landing vertical speed (VVI)?
• For Simulated EP training rules, which of the following conditions applies?
• Which light goes out when the left engine starts?
• A red display on the EED indicates which range of fuel imbalance, and what is the recommended remedy?
• Bug speeds are based on flap angle derived from which source rather than the flap position indicator?
• What is the maximum holding speed for a United States Air Force field?
• Which statement is true about Ram Dump with respect to engine anti-ice?
• Which arrangement yields the artificial feel produced by the flight controls?
• During an instrument cockpit check, TACAN/VOR distance from a known checkpoint must be at least which value?
• What is the primary purpose of the battery's connection to the DC busses?
• How do the TRUs provide one output to the busses?
• During the start of the right engine, which generator goes out at 43-48% RPM?
• G tones for negative Gs occur at what fraction of positive G warnings?
• What is the maximum amount of fuel?
• For stall warning with gear up, altitude must be below what height AGL?
• DTNT elements: which statement is true about the DTNT acronym? (Which option lists all four elements precisely?)
• Which statement about Pattern Solo is true?
• Which of the following speeds is NOT one of the speeds equal to L/D Max?
• Which engine model is specified for the T-38 as a J85-GE-5R/S, 8-stage, axial-flow turbojet?
• During the instrument cockpit check, how should the pitot heat operate?
• Which bus powers the speed brake?
• How many AB pilot spray bars are there?
• Minimum SETOS is defined as the speed corresponding to which engine configuration?
• Which component must be powered for rudder trim to function?
• Which G limit applies to the asymmetric configuration of WSSP?
• When should ICAO loading be delayed?
• What is the frequency range of the AC power from the generators?
• Regarding AB fuel flow, does AB value display occur on the fuel flow gauge, and how much does AB increase fuel flow?
• When is the fuel quantity warning system lost?
• What are the outputs of APUs?
• For over-wing refueling starting with the left system, how many pounds of fuel are involved?
• What capability related to power flow between buses is controlled by the protection panel?
• What is the position tolerance for flaps?
• What is the temperature range for the TAT probe?
• Which statement best summarizes Idle Decay risk conditions?
• What is the generator shift range?
• Time Inspections are due at the end of the flight on which the time is exceeded and can overfly by 10% maximum.
• Idle Decay occurs during 1 G stalls at or above FL200 with throttles at idle and airspeed less than 200 KCAS. What happens to RPM?
• In crab configuration with full fuel, what is the maximum landing VVI?
• In Immelmann, what is the backward/forward distance requirement?
• Which term is included as part of the DOODMSS acronym?
• What is the recommended remedy for a 60-190 lb fuel imbalance displayed on EED?
• What is the WSSP abrupt maneuvering max speed?
• What is the oil system capacity?
• What might happen if pitot heat remains on for longer than 30 seconds on the ground?
• How many self-adjuster mechanisms do the wheel brakes have?
• What is the maximum holding speed for 14,001' and above?
• Describe T2 Cutback.
• Aircrew may file to land at US civil public airports when:
• Lazy Eight parameters: which option reflects the correct KCAS, RPM, altitude, and spacing?
• Which fuel value is designated as Emergency Fuel?
• What happens when you move the throttle to idle during start?
• Hydroplaning is possible at what speed relative to tire pressure?
• Which parameter is used to estimate hydroplaning risk?
• Between 12,500' and 14,000', what is the maximum duration allowed without supplemental oxygen?
• During crossfeeding, when may the FUEL PRESS light illuminate momentarily?
• According to altitude limitations without oxygen, remain below what altitude?
• According to the IFR filing guidance, what is the stated instruction?
• G Warmup parameters: which of the following correctly states the G Warmup parameters?
• Which of the following is a listed type of Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)?
• Which device can be used to check the seven fuel flow sensors without applying power?
• Fuel reserve requirements
• What is the exception to BILLL?
• During the cockpit check, what is the stated INS accuracy?
• Not recommended to crossfeed in which scenario?
• What is the normal hydraulic pressure range?
• How do you eliminate duct howl?
• Where is there an increased susceptibility to stall/flameout?
• What squawk code should be used until receiving IFR clearance during Restricted Overhead Breakout?
• At what voltage will the relay disconnect the battery?
• Nose gear extended more than 3/4 allows how many degrees of rudder travel?
• Rudder trim allows how many degrees of rudder travel?
• What flight parameters should you avoid MAX power?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the solo balance concept?
• The protection panel protects busses from a bad generator and the generator from a bad bus, and also controls what capability?
• If crosswinds exceed 15 kts and there is no suitable barrier, what is the minimum runway length required?
• Describe T2 Bias.
• G Awareness parameters: which option lists the correct G Awareness values?
• Which bus powers fuel shutoff switches and how long does it take?
• What are the weather requirements for a Visual Approach?
• Which statement is true about stall warning with gear down?
• Which value represents the WSSP abrupt maneuvering max speed?
• Under which condition do TRUs power all three DC busses via diode module?
• Cavitation concerns arise when the fuel quantity drops below which condition?
• The gear lever is controlled by which electric bus?
• For the instrument cockpit check, the ILS flight director should default to what state?
• Which mnemonic indicates that a procedure turn is not authorized?
• Which is the maximum time for the nozzles to reach 50-85 percent when rapid throttle movements are used in flight?
• Which light(s) turn on when the right start button is pushed?
• When do you hear a medium G tone?
• What phrase would you normally use to indicate you are breaking out to radar?
• How many pounds of fuel are in the right system?
• Which item is powered by the Battery Bus?
• What will pressing the warning horn silence button do?
• What is the difference in MIL to MAX for thrust and fuel flow?
• What Angle of Attack corresponds to stall?
• What is defined as the minimum continuous level flight speed?
• Using the crosswind quick math circle method, what fraction of wind does a 30-degree crosswind represent?
• The last 50% of thrust is achieved during which portion of RPM?
• Barometric aiding may reduce the number of satellites required for RAIM/FDE by how much?
• Which engine mounted accessory helps prevent overspeed?
• How many pounds of fuel for single point refueling?
• What is the cabin pressurization segment from 8k' to FL230?
• When do you hear a high G tone?
• Right engine fuel cells supply is which pair?
• What is the minimum altitude for Other Air Work?
• Lead the pull up: how should you lead the pull up?
• How long does an alternate gear extension take?
• What is the crosswind limit for touch-and-go operations?
• To energize igniters for more than 30 seconds, which action should you take?
• For a Loop maneuver, what is the target load factor or Gs range?
• Under which conditions does the gear not-down warning system activate?
• SE Go 100% flaps rule: By what altitude is Boldface required?
• The Right Autosyn is associated with which system?
• Which item is listed under Right Essential DC Bus?
• Which statement about solo fuel balance is true?
• Which busses can the battery power?
• Which term refers to air navigation routes in the list?
• What systems are required for SAS to work?
• Using AUX flaps, what is the effect of selecting 100%?
• Max Range AOA value?
• The published outbound leg for holds is based on which reference?
• At what altitude have flameouts occurred with gravity flow, indicating its limits?
• What is the generator cut-in range?
• Requirements to begin an approach
• Wake turbulence spacing behind large aircraft or helicopter?
• How many fuel systems are there?
• When is gravity flow sufficient for normal engine operation?
• Under the Aero/AHC training rules, what are the required weather/visual conditions?
• What is the dry crosswind limit?
• What does the SAS do?
• Which statement about the FCP and RCP speed brake positions is true?
• Under Restricted Overhead procedures, what is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in the RSU pattern?
• Which item is used to indicate flight at night in the list?
• What may occur due to insufficient fuel pressure during crossfeed?
• Which item is NOT on the Non-Essential DC Bus?
• What is the HUD field of view width?
• When will a rectifier failure PFL be produced?
• What can you not do on practice overheads/circles?
• Training Rules: G-Ex
• When does the minimum stick force per G occur?
• Under what condition will the EED power up in Max Day brightness?
• Which document version is cited for IFR filing guidance?
• What does GPS approaches only clause indicate?
• Under what condition can a rapid imbalance occur when using crossfeed?
• Which item is listed under Left Essential DC Bus?
• Min Maneuvering airspeed and configuration rule: what is the default assumption for maneuvering configuration unless specified?
• When does the gear (not down) warning system activate?
• When will the SAS disengage?
• What is the thrust loss when anti-ice is used in MAX configuration?
• SID stands for in this material?
• On a VOR/TACAN, established on course is indicated by what CDI deflection?
• When will the fuel low light come on?
• Which statement about the boost pumps’ electrical power source is correct?
• Weather required to file
• Which combination of inputs is required for engine starts?
• What is the uncontrolled ejection altitude?
• Which statement about boost pumps during crossfeeding is true?
• During AB operation, when can nozzle position be less than 50%?
• What produces the flight control's artificial feel?
• Describe the AC phase power.
• Which maneuver is to be performed at 4-8K above?
• What is not permitted when crosswinds exceed 15 knots and there is no suitable barrier?
• How does a fuel imbalance of 60-190 lbs display on EED?
• Pattern Solo requires which of the following statements to be true?
• Do not descend below localizer minimums if you are more than how many dots below the glideslope or above it?
• The L/D Max speed is approximately which value?
• What is the maximum holding speed for the altitude band up to 6,000'?
• What are the volts and amps of the battery?
• What indication occurs when the EED experiences an overtemperature condition?
• Which light goes out when left air is connected?
• During the instrument cockpit check, the EHSI deviation from the mag compass should be within which tolerance?
• AB fuel flow at rest, sea level?
• During taxiing in icy, snow, or at night, what spacing is required?
• Which instrument provides the angle of attack information?
• During an EED overtemperature event, how long is the EED HOT indicator displayed?
• Which EGT range triggers a continuous MDP notification for 60 seconds?
• When is the anti-ice valve always open?
• What will cause a false XMFR RECT OUT light to illuminate?
• What do the boost pumps do?
• Cuban Eight: what is the forward distance required?
• How long should you wait before shutting down after turning off the EGI?
• How can the static inverter be activated?
• Which set of lights turn on when the battery is turned on for a battery start?
• Can you practice min roll landings?
• Under what condition do the fuel quantity bars turn red?
• What do the TRUs power?
• Which cockpit(s) have control of boost pumps?
• How does a fuel imbalance of 0-50 lbs display on EED?
• Which canopy rating statement is correct?
• How long will the emergency O2 bottle last?
• During an instrument cockpit check, the TACAN/VOR TO/FROM swap must be set to what?
• What speed is L/D Max?
• Normal Recovery Fuel is defined as established locally or 800 lbs (1000 lbs solo), whichever is greater. Which option expresses this correctly?
• How does crossfeed operate in a two-engine fuel system?
• Boost pump output reduction percentage occurs when fuel is under 650 lbs?
• Which of the following is a type of IFR departure acronym listed?
• How can you tell brakes are near the end of their service life?
• AB Fuel Control Senses: DTNT stands for which set of sensors?
• Which item is on the Battery Bus?
• Which hydraulic system powers the wheel brakes?
• Which category is associated with circling radius in the material?
• Which system uses utility hydraulic pressure to reduce yaw oscillations?
• SE Go 60% flaps rule: By what altitude is Boldface required?
• Which combination of items is explicitly listed as part of the instrument cockpit check?
• How many fuel flow sensors are there and how can they be checked without power?
• T2 Cutback purpose is to prevent what conditions?
• Which ejection altitude is higher?
• How long does normal gear extension take?
• When is the gear voice message activated?
• Which systems are powered by the Utility hydraulic system?
• What condition can increase stall susceptibility above FL350?
• Which lights go out when the right engine starts?
• What is the WSSP maximum load capacity in pounds?
• The Right Autosyn is associated with which component?
• Which item is NOT a 3-Phase AC Equipment component?
• The canopy should not be opened if the relative wind exceeds how many KCAS?
• Which maneuver's parameters specify 18-20 NL?
• What is the CAT E circling radius in nautical miles?
• What speed is the lock point configured with 60% flaps?
• Under Weather Solo, what is the maximum cloud thickness allowed?
• What is the cabin pressurization schedule?
• What is the base speed used to determine Final Turn Speed?
• Refusal Speed Assumptions: what is the specified reaction time before throttles are pulled to idle?
• Which statement is true about WSSP speeds?
• Which bus powers crossfeeding and where is the valve located?
• What is the speed of fuel shutoff valve actuation when commanded?
• Thru-Flight Inspection (TH) is accomplished:
• Which altitude range uses 265 KIAS as the maximum holding speed?
• Decision Speed Definition and Assumptions.
• When do you hear a max G tone?
• In the Loop maneuver, what indicated airspeed is targeted?
• Which fuel cells supply the right engine?
• Under the single-engine landing distance expression, what is added to 2500 for the 60% flaps condition?
• Where does the air from anti-ice go?
• Which altitude range uses 200 KIAS as the maximum holding speed?
• Which electrical bus powers the AOA system?
• How long does pressing the start button activate the static inverter?
• Which item is listed under Left AC Bus?
• Which component is part of the Variable Geometry System controlled by the main fuel control?
• What is the minimum altitude above water or sparsely populated areas?
• When the gear warning light and tone turn off during acceleration, at what speed does this occur?
• Which statement is true regarding balance limits?
• Exceptional Release (ER) is always required prior to flight.
• Where are the left and right boost pumps located?
• Final Approach Speed (No Flap) is what, including gas, with a minimum?
• How does a fuel imbalance of 200+ lbs display on EED?
• When is it impermissible to use flaps?
• Other Air Work training rules specify altitude above what?
• Which bus powers the EED?
• What does the static inverter operate?
• In the SETOS definition, the climb speed is with gear down and flaps at what percent?
• Left engine fuel cells supply is which pair?
• Does the alternate qualify?
• Landing Distance for 100% Flaps is equal to which expression?
• How many satellites are required for FDE?
• At what fuel should you not crossfeed with both boost pumps operating?
• How can the igniters be energized for more than 30 seconds?
• When is a rise in EGT normal when using anti-ice?
• With gear down and an AOA of 0.75, will the stall warning horn sound?
• Does pressing the start button reset the 30-second timer?
• During an instrument cockpit check, TACAN/VOR CDI displacement tolerance is which of the following?
• Landing Distance for 60% Flaps is given as which expression?
• What does OFF mean on the EED?
• Under AB operation, when may the nozzle position indicate less than 50%?